Welcome to OGeek Q&A Community for programmer and developer-Open, Learning and Share
Welcome To Ask or Share your Answers For Others

Categories

0 votes
614 views
in Technique[技术] by (71.8m points)

css selectors - Why do 'foo bar' and 'foo > bar' have the same specificity in CSS?

I'm curious why using > or other combinators does not affect the specificity of CSS selectors, i.e. why div span (matching a span somewhere inside a div) and div > span (matching a span which is the immediate child of a div) are considered equal regarding the specificity.

I do realize that the usage of combinators is completely irrelevant for the specificity but I wonder if there's a certain reason for it.

See Question&Answers more detail:os

与恶龙缠斗过久,自身亦成为恶龙;凝视深渊过久,深渊将回以凝视…
Welcome To Ask or Share your Answers For Others

1 Reply

0 votes
by (71.8m points)

This has actually been brought up in the working group mailing list, way back when, in this thread.

It basically comes down to, yes, intuitively a selector with a combinator looks more specific, but an algorithm, extended form the current one, with this in mind becomes much more complicated than the "simple" triplets used now, which is pretty confusing for people as it is.

Finally,

While this could have been the case, this is one of the few things in CSS2
that have been interoperably implemented for years, and therefore won't
change in CSS2.1.

"If it ain't broke, don't fix it." seemed to be the final call.


与恶龙缠斗过久,自身亦成为恶龙;凝视深渊过久,深渊将回以凝视…
OGeek|极客中国-欢迎来到极客的世界,一个免费开放的程序员编程交流平台!开放,进步,分享!让技术改变生活,让极客改变未来! Welcome to OGeek Q&A Community for programmer and developer-Open, Learning and Share
Click Here to Ask a Question

...